Nonsense!
Biryani is NOT Mughal dish.Its earlier name was "Hindavi Laziz" ="Indian delicacy"
The word Biryani is NOT Arabic, Persian,Turkic. It originally comes from Sanskrit word borrowed by Persian.
Early Biryani with meat, rice & spices was known as मांसोदन in Ancient India
Biryani is NOT Mughal dish.Its earlier name was "Hindavi Laziz" ="Indian delicacy"
The word Biryani is NOT Arabic, Persian,Turkic. It originally comes from Sanskrit word borrowed by Persian.
Early Biryani with meat, rice & spices was known as मांसोदन in Ancient India
Biryani is made from rice and spices.
In those days, Rice DID NOT EVEN GROW in the original Mughal homeland.
Infact, the first Mughal emperor Babur DOES NOT EVEN MENTION mention rice when he was in Central Asia. He mentions other crops and cereals but rice is completely ABSENT
In those days, Rice DID NOT EVEN GROW in the original Mughal homeland.
Infact, the first Mughal emperor Babur DOES NOT EVEN MENTION mention rice when he was in Central Asia. He mentions other crops and cereals but rice is completely ABSENT
How exactly have Mughals brought to Biryani to India?
Before an ignoramus says "Where are potatoes, tomatoes and Chilles?"
There were NO potatoes, tomatoes and Chillies in the Mughalai Biryani of Shah Jahan & Aurangzeb. There is no mention of them in Nuskha I Shahjahani Biryan
Before an ignoramus says "Where are potatoes, tomatoes and Chilles?"
There were NO potatoes, tomatoes and Chillies in the Mughalai Biryani of Shah Jahan & Aurangzeb. There is no mention of them in Nuskha I Shahjahani Biryan
Coming to the Mughal Biryani, we have already mentioned that the word Biryani originally comes from a Sanskrit word borrowed by Persian.
The word "Biryani" DOES NOT appear until 17th century. It is ABSENT in all the older records.
The word "Biryani" DOES NOT appear until 17th century. It is ABSENT in all the older records.
The FIRST unambiguous mention of Biryani comes from Nuskha-i-Shahjahani in 17th century.
t was made in the kitchens of INDIA which have access to spices. This is NOT surprising. Biryani IS MADE OF rice and spices which could be found only in India (or South East Asia)
t was made in the kitchens of INDIA which have access to spices. This is NOT surprising. Biryani IS MADE OF rice and spices which could be found only in India (or South East Asia)
Now I examine the claim that "Mughals brought Biryani to India" with textual sources.
In this respect, data from Baburnama is extremely valuable as a contemporary Mughal source for geographical and botanical data.
To begin with, What was India ('Hindustan') during those days?
In this respect, data from Baburnama is extremely valuable as a contemporary Mughal source for geographical and botanical data.
To begin with, What was India ('Hindustan') during those days?
With this background in place, let us examine the evidence from Babur's mouth.
Throughout Baburnama, Babur DOES NOT mention rice when he was in Central Asia.
He mentions other crops and cereals but rice is completely ABSENT.
What to say of Biryani?
Throughout Baburnama, Babur DOES NOT mention rice when he was in Central Asia.
He mentions other crops and cereals but rice is completely ABSENT.
What to say of Biryani?
It is clear that Mughals DID NOT bring Biryani to India. Far from it. They did not even have natively cultivated rice. Rice could not be adequately grown in their homelands in those days. They encountered rice fields in Hindustan and looted those rice fields during night raids
While there have been occasional instances of mention of rice in central Asia( for ex, pilaf encountered by Alexander and rice cultivation of Kushans), this was largely the case of elites borrowing from South Asia or introducing an exotic crop
At any rate, there is NOT A SINGLE mention of the word Biryani in Persia or central Asia.
The earliest mention of the word Biryani comes from 17th century and it comes from the kitchens of India. There is no evidence that it was brought from Persia or central Asia. Far from it.
The earliest mention of the word Biryani comes from 17th century and it comes from the kitchens of India. There is no evidence that it was brought from Persia or central Asia. Far from it.
To all the idiotic Namazees quoting this thread without understanding basic context.
Hindavi Laziz was not a word used by Hindus. Hindus called it मांसौदन.
Muzlim ancestors and Mughals called it Hindavi Laziz. Which is their straight admission that Biryani has Indian origins
Hindavi Laziz was not a word used by Hindus. Hindus called it मांसौदन.
Muzlim ancestors and Mughals called it Hindavi Laziz. Which is their straight admission that Biryani has Indian origins
Central Asian semi arid climate is not very conducive to the production of rice.
A related dish is Pulav.
The word comes from Sanskrit Pulāka (पुलाक) meaning "boiled rice" (alternatively, it could also mean "shrivelled grain")
A related dish is Pulav.
The word comes from Sanskrit Pulāka (पुलाक) meaning "boiled rice" (alternatively, it could also mean "shrivelled grain")
This Sanskrit word was taken into Old Tamil and Old Telugu as "Pulakam". And the word gave its name very famous rice dish named Pulakam that is extant even today in South India (புளகம், పులకము)
agarathi.com
agarathi.com
While Pulakam is mainly served today as a Khichdi like rice dish, some older regional variants particularly used spices, saffron and accompanied it with Rayta like curd preparation, making it identical to what is understood by "Pulav" today
youtube.com
youtube.com
The great Persian linguist Ali Nourai shows that a sound cluster of voiceless plosive, non front vowel and a liquid is simply not existent in native Persian phonology Hence, a word such as "Pilaw/pilaf" is simply NOT a native Persian word. It is a borrowed loanword into Persian
In "Etymological Dictionary of Persian", leading Persian linguist Garnik Asatrian makes a very interesting point. He says the word "Pulav/Pilaw" or its ancestors are completely ABSENT in Old & Middle Persian. It occurs in New Persian when Ghaznavids begin expanding into India
This shows Pulav was really Indian.
This thread thus very clearly establishes the Indian origin of Biryani and Pulav through linguistic, semantic and historical prisms.
The reader is free to make his own opinion after reading the thread
This thread thus very clearly establishes the Indian origin of Biryani and Pulav through linguistic, semantic and historical prisms.
The reader is free to make his own opinion after reading the thread
Earlier in the thread, I wrote about the very rare occurrence of rice in Central Asia during Kushan & Greek period.
Now, research indicates that rice was introduced into Central Asia from Indian subcontinent, even if cultivation attempts mostly failed
phys.org
Now, research indicates that rice was introduced into Central Asia from Indian subcontinent, even if cultivation attempts mostly failed
phys.org
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