Is the hadith of which parent "ejaculates first" unscientific?
Short Answer: The hadith doesn't say this.
Long Answer: This 🧵
Short Answer: The hadith doesn't say this.
Long Answer: This 🧵
The hadith in question is this one. The thing is that there exists another version of the hadith reported by Anas. Multiple hadith scholars, like Ibn Taymiyyah and others, say that Anas's version is more correct, since hadith is transmitted by meaning and some words can be lost.
Now, the difference between the hadiths is the idea of gender being determined and not the child's looks. In the more authentic version, it uses "شبه" which means that the looks, not the gender, will be determined by both parents.
Then, the majority of the hadiths on this issue use the word "على" and not "سبق". The former means to dominate and the layer often means to be first. The former word usage is more authentic than the latter since it was reported much more often.
Other hadiths also use the word "غلب" which definitely mean to dominate. Even if one insists that the word "سبق" was used, it wouldn't be a problem, since this word can also mean to dominate.
After all of this, we can explain the hadith as whichever of the parents fluid (I.e genetic sex cells) dominates the other, the familiarity of the child will be to the one whose fluid dominated. This fits perfectly with dominate and recessive alleles in genetics.
Finally, one may argue that this hadith suggests that the prophet understood the women's fluid as vaginal secretions which do not have any role in genetics. However, this is false.
The prophet states in the hadith that the women's fluid is yellow and non-viscous. This description doesn't fit vaginal secretions. Rather, it fits more with the description of follicular fluid which does include the egg sex cell.
This is because the normally without the influence of disease, the follicular fluid is runny and yellow, which vaginal secretions are clear and viscous. The description of the follicular fluid perfectly matches the prophet's words.
If the prophet was making up this knowledge and was scientifically unaware, why didn't he describe the obvious fluid any married would see at the time, which is clear and white rather than yellow?
The final objective is that in the hadith Umm Sulaim was talking in the context of what fluid women see in wet dreams. However, this isn't the case. Umm Sulaim explicitly asks if women even have wet dreams at all like mean.
The prophet answers with the affirmation, saying that women contribute the same to the looks of the child as the man. He, then, describes the follicular fluid, not the vaginal secretions. This is due to the fact that arabs thought the mother was just a passive receiver.
The prophet corrected this understanding and said the women, just like the man, has genetic fluid like him and contributes to the genome of the child.
*Correction:
This is the egg, not the follicular fluid.
This is the egg, not the follicular fluid.
Also, viscosity is measured by centipoise and Pascal seconds. One PA/s = 1000 Centipoise. Follicular Fluid viscosity is about 3 centipoise at most (Comparable to Perfume), while vaginal secretions are as viscous as eggs (30 centipoise). Follicular fluid is "thin" comparatively.
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